Hi,
Can you please provide a derivation of the default 'long term losses' value of 100 MPa?
I understand it takes account of relaxation, elastic shortening, creep and shrinkage, however I'd like to know how this number was produced. The Australian codes have equations to calculate tendon relaxation (Clause 3.3.4), perhaps there is scope for the program to calculate it?
Typically long term losses are around 15% of the initial stress (~1564 MPa) which would come out as 235 MPa.
Where am I going wrong here? Thanks for the help.